Monday, May 16, 2022
Saturday, May 14, 2022
daily current affairs may month 2022-23 | ssc cgl, chsl, railway current affairs, mppsc gk 2022
. 216. Biography of late soil Sorabjee titled "Soli Sorabjee: Life and Times" Chandrachud authored by Abhinav
217. Hindi novel Tomb of Sand' nominated for International Booker Prize
218.Sahitya Akademi published book-length poem 'Monsoon' Indian poet-diplomat Abhay K
219. 9 March: No Smoking Day
220. 10 March (Second Thursday March): World Kidney Day 2022 (Theme 2022: 'Kidney Health All')
221. 10 March: International Day Women Judges
222.13 March: World Rotaract (Theme 2022: "Rotary Making a Difference".)
223. 14 March: Pi Day or International Day of Mathematics (Theme 2022: Mathematics Unites!)
224. 14 March: International Day Action for Rivers (Theme 2022: "the biodiversity.")
225. 12 March: World Glaucoma (Theme 2022: "The world is bright, save your sight".) importance of rivers l
226. 15 March: World Consumer Rights Day (Theme 2022: "Fair Digital Finance.")
227. March: National Vaccination Day or National Immunisation Day (Theme 2022: "Vaccines Work for all".)
228. Former Pakistani President Rafiq Tarar passed away
229. Nirmala Sitharaman presented a Rs 1.42 Lakh crore Budget for FY 2022- 23 for J&K in Lok Sabha
230. Welspun One Logistics Parks signed MoU with Haryana Govt to invest 1500 crores to set up warehouses
231. MV Ram Prasad Bismil became longest vessel to sail from Ganga to Brahmaputra via Bangladesh
232. 36th International Geological Congress will be held in New Delhi
233. Karnataka developed Dishaank app to ensure easy access to land records
234. Indian Railways prepared National Rail Plan (NRP) for India-2030
235. West Bengal celebrated 'Dol utsav' or Dol jatra
236. Visakhapatnam Railway Station became the 1st station in East Coast implement 'One Nation, One Product
237. Telangana became 1st state in India Diversification Index Crop to implement
238. Cochin Shipyard signed an agreement with Dredging Corporation of India to build India's first make in India dredger
239. NCRTC unveiled the coaches of India's first rapid rail to be used in the Delhi-Meerut corridor
240. 35th Surajkund International Crafts Mela inaugurated in Haryana
241. N Biren Singh took oath as Manipur CM for the second term.
242. Nagaland became first paperless assembly by implementing eVidhan application
253. India handmade Nadu's Narasingapettai Nagaswaram geographical identification tag
244. Pramod Sawant took charge as Goa Chief Minister for the 2nd term
245. Kerala became 1st state to introduce carbon-neutral farming Methods
246. Pushkar Singh Dhami took oath as Chief Minister of Uttarakhand for term
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Tuesday, May 10, 2022
11th may 2022 gk/general awareness question help you for ssc chsl 2022,ibps exam, ssc cgl, shi so exam 2022.ssc free mock test for ssc, state psc
11th may 2022 general knowledge /general awareness questions for ssc chsl, cgl, ibps, sbi so & ALL PSC's competitive exam. All 2022 gk quiz. Gk question for state pcs, ssc, banking, & icar IARI, sbi exam
1. Who of the following has been awarded the Laureas World Sportsman of the Year 2022?
a. Lewis Hamilton b. Sebastian Vettel c. Sergio Perez 11th may 2022 general knowledge /general awareness questions for ssc chsl, cgl, ibps, sbi so & other competitive exam. All april 2022 gk quiz
1. Who of the following has been awarded the Laureas World Sportsman of the Year 2022?
a. Lewis Hamilton b. Sebastian Vettel c. Sergio Perez d. Max Verstappen
2. What name was given to a tulip breed at the Keukenhof Tulip Park during the President Shri Rajnath Singh's visit to Netherlands? a. Maitri b. Suman c. Parag d. Dosti
3. Dane Van Niekerk, the only woman cricketer in the Wisden Cricketers of the Year 2022 belongs to which country? a. Australia b. New Zealand c. South Africa d. England
4. Kane Tanaka, who died at the age of 119 years and 107 days belonged to which country? a. Japan b. South Korea c. China d. Thailand
5. Which country recently tested its laser missile defence system named tron Beam? b. North Korea c. Israel d. Brazil a. Iran
6, What is the theme of World Immunization Week observed from 24 to 30 April 2022? c. Health for all d. Immunity for all a. Vaccine for all b. Long life for all
7. Who was awarded the Player of the Series in the 2022 ICC Women's World Cup? a. Sophie Ecclestone b. Jhulan Goswami c. Rachael Haynes d. Alyssa Healy
8. Deoghar, where a ropeway accident claimed 2 lives, is situated in which state? a. Jharkhand c. Uttar Pradesh d. Uttarakhand b. Bihar
9. At which of the following places were the Khelo India University Games held recently? a. Hyderabad b. Chandigarh c. Bengaluru d. Pune
10. Who is the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog? a. Amitabh Kant b. Suman Bery c. Ramesh Chand d. VK Saraswat
11. At which of the following places was India's first pure Green Hydrogen pilot plant commissioned recently? a. Guwahati b. Tejpur c. Shillong d. Jorhat
12. What is correct order of top 3 countries in military spending as per Stockholm International Institute (SIPRI) report titled Trends in World Military Expenditure Report 2021 ? a. USA, Saudi Arabia, India b. USA, China, India c. China, Saudi Arabia, India c. Saudi Arabia, India, Israel
13. Falguni Nayyar was ranked at No. 10 position in the Hurun Richest Self-Made Women in the World 2022. With which company is she associated? a. PayTM b. Zoho C. Nyka d. Biocon
14. Which album by Falguni Shah was awarded the Best Children's Album at the 64 Grammy Awards in April 2022? a, A Colorful World b. Crayon Kids C. Activate d. All One Tribe
15. How many times has Australia won the ICC Womens Cricket World Cup? a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Seven
16. What was the theme of World Health Day observed on 07 April 2022? a. Our Planet, Our Health b. Heritage and Climate c. Invest in our Planet d. Long Life for All
17. In which country were the Asian Wrestling Championships 2022 held in April 20227 a. Kazakhstan b. Mongolia c. Uzbekistan d. Iran
18. What was the theme of International Mother Earth Day observed on 22 April 2022? a. Our Planet, Our Health b. Heritage and Climate c. Invest in our Planet d. Long Life for All
19. At which place was a 3-day Global Ayush Investment and Innovation Summit 2022 held in April 2022? a. Varanasi b. Gandhinagar c. Jammu d. Dehradun
20. At what price has Elon Musk bought the social media platform Twitter? a. $ 40 billion b. $44 billion c. $48 billion d. $ 54 billion
21. With which of the following sports is Sajan Prakash associated? a. Track & Field b. Badminton c. Swimming d. Chess
22. Which airlines launched the first commercial flight using made-in-India Dornier-228 between Pasighat and Dibrugarh?
a, Indigo b. Air Asia C. Alliance Air d. Air India
23. Which two Indian cities have been included in the Tree City of the World list by UN Food and Agricultural Organisation and Arbor Day Foundation? a. Bengaluru and Pune b. Bengaluru and Hyderabad c. Pune and Mumbai d. Hyderabad and Mumbai
24. With which sport is D Gukesh associated? a. Chess b. Athletics c. Boxing d. Wrestling
25. In which of the following water bodies did the Russian warship Moskova sink during the Russia-Ukraine war? d. Caspian Sea d. Baltic Sea a. Black Sea b. Arctic Ocean
26. Which state created 13 new districts taking the total to 26 with effect from 01 April 2022? a. Telangana b. Tamil Nadu C. Andhra Pradesh d. Odisha
27. The album Divine Tides by Ricky Kej won the Grammy Award in which category? a. Global Music b. New Age C. Classical d. Alternative
28. Which state of Australia has been designated to host the 2026 Commonwealth Games? a. Victoria c. Queensland d. New South Wales b. Tasmania
29. Which of the following has launched Fincluvation - a joint initiative to collaborate with Fintech Startup community to co-create and innovate solutions for financial inclusion? a, Life insurance Corporation b. State Bank of India c. India Post Payments Bank d. NITI Aayog
30. Which team has won the 12h Senior Men's National Hockey Championship? a, Punjab b. Haryana c. Tamil Nadu d. Railways
ssc chsl 2022 exam gs preparation, ssc chsl 2022 paper, ssc chsl exam gs/gk preparation tips, ssc cgl 2022 exam free mock test for general awareness, ssc chsl 2022 free mock test for general awareness/gk question, ibps banking exam preparation 2022,banking exam free mock 2022,sbi so free mock preparation for general awareness, icar IARI
Monday, May 9, 2022
ICAI IARI 2022 Exam for Assistant post are 462+ , Application begins
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has published the IARI Recruitment 2022 Notification for recruitment to the posts of Assistant. Total notified vacancies by the ICAI IARI for Assistant post are 462. Online applications for these posts will start from 07.05.2022 and eligible & interested candidates can apply online till 01.06.2022.
As you know recently ICAR give notifications about ICAR IARI EXAM 2022 notifications here I provide all small details about the recruitment process, eligibility, important dates, & other good things
Detailed official notification, online application link, eligibility criteria, educational qualification, salary / pay scale, vacancy and other relevant details for ICAR IARI Assistant recruitment 2022 are provided below.
Important Dates (tentative)*
Submission of online applications starts on 07 May, 2022
Last date and time for receipt of online applications 01 June, 2022
Last date and time for making online fee payment 01 June, 2022
Correction Window 05 June, 2022 to 07 June, 2022
Date of online objective type examination (CBT) (Preliminary) Last week of June, 2022 (Tentative)
Date pf holding Mains examination To be informed at a later date.
Skill Test To be informed at a later date.
ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATIONS: -
Bachelor’s degree from a recognized University. Candidate must specifically indicate the percentage of marks
obtained (calculated to the nearest two decimals) in the relevant column of the application form. Where percentage of marks is not awarded by the University but only CGPA/OGPA is awarded, the same shall be converted into percentage in terms of conversion norms of university in this regard, besides indicating the CGPA/OGPA in the application form. Candidates will have to produce the certificate/document issued by the university evidencing conversion formula of university, when called for document verification. Round off %age will not be acceptable under any circumstances for consideration for appointment. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 39.99% will be treated as less than 40%.
Application Fee Details: -
The candidates seeking admission to the examination must pay to the IARI a fee as follows:
S.No. Category of Candidate Examination
fee (Rs.)
Registration fee
(Rs.)
Total (Rs.)
1. UR/OBC-NCL(NCL)/EWS 700 500 1200
2. Women/Schedule- Caste/Schedule
Tribe/Person with Benchmark
Disability
NIL 500 500
ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED
CASTE/SCHEDULE TRIBE/PERSON WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY ARE EXEMPTED FROM
PAYMENT OF EXAMINATION FEE. THEY HAVE TO PAY REGISTRATION FEE ONLY.
NOTE-I: Online application form available on the website i.e., https://www.iari.res.in only. Fee must be paid in
online mode only.
NOTE-II: Online applications not accompanied by the prescribed registration fee (whenever applicable) shall be
summarily rejected/ not accepted.
NOTE-III: Transaction charges (if any) for online payment of application fee will have to be borne by the
candidate.
NOTE-IV: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can be adjusted for any other
examination or selection.
(I) Scheme of Examination:-
(A) ICAR Assistant Grade (Preliminary) Examination: -
PART Subject No. of
Questions
Max. Marks Duration
A General Intelligence and
Reasoning
25 50 1.00 Hours
(1 hours and 20 minutes
for the candidates eligible
for scribe.)
B General Awareness 25 50
C Quantative Aptitude 25 50
D English Comprehension 25 50
(B) ICAR Assistant Grade (Main) Examination:-
Paper
No.
Subject No. of Questions Max.
Marks
Duration
I Quantitative Abilities 50
(Objective Type)
100 2 Hours
(2 hours and 40 minutes for
the candidates eligible for
scribe.)
English Language &
Comprehension
100
(Objective Type)
100
II Descriptive Paper in English or Hindi
(Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/ Application etc.)
100 1 Hours
(1 hours and 20 minutes for
the candidates eligible for
scribe.)
i. Preliminary and Mains Examinations (Paper – I) will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions. The
questions will be set both in English & Hindi except for English Comprehension in Preliminary and Main
Examinations (Paper – I).
ii. The Preliminary Exam and Paper – I of the Main Examination will be conducted in online mode and Paper – II of
the Main examination will be conducted in offline mode.
Indicative Syllabus for Assistant Grade (Preliminary) Examination:
(A) General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component
may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem
solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts,
arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding,
statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/ Number Analogy,
Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/ Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic
Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical
Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing
inferences, Punched hole/ pattern- folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern-folding and completion, Indexing, Address
matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/ roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/ numbers
coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social
Intelligence.
(B) General Awareness: Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates’ general awareness of the
environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current
events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected
of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries
especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.
(C) Quantitative Aptitude: The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number
sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and
relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss,
Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic
identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of
centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of acircle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism,
Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right
Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities,
Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.
(D) English Comprehension: Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his/ her basic comprehension and
writing ability, etc. would be tested.
The questions in Parts A, B, & D will be of a level commensurate with the essential qualification viz. Graduation and
questions in Part-C will be of 10thstandard level.
Indicative Syllabus for Assistant Grade (Mains) Examination:
Paper-I
(i) Quantitative Abilities: The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number
sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and
relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss,
Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities
of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres,
Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle,
common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right
Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid
with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities,
Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.
(ii) English Language and Comprehension: Questions in this component will be designed to test the candidate’s
understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in 21 the blanks,
synonyms, antonyms, spelling/ detecting misspelled words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement
of sentences, active/ passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/ indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts,
shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.
Paper-II
Questions in the Paper-II (Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/ Application etc.) will be of Graduation Level.
Notifications Download - click here
Saturday, May 7, 2022
SSC CGL, CHSL 2022 GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTION - FREE MOCK SSC CHSL
SSC chsl 2022 free mock test for general awareness
This month ssc will conduct SSC CHSL 2022 exam & we are providing some important general awareness quiz based on latest GK . This is basically a free mock test who wants to prepare for ssc, ibps, sbi so, cds, state psc exam 2022-23.It will definitely help you when you read this.
In which year street child world cup will organised? 2023
World art day? 15th april
Himachal pradesh day observed? 15 th april
Full Form of GIL? Godrej Industries limited
Which govt. Extended Parivaar pehchan patra (ppp)? Haryana.
Author name 'The Boy Who Wrote a Constitution? Rajesh talwaar
Who presented the dr. bhim rao ambedkar award in 14 april 2022 ? Basavaraj bommai
Q First Intelligence Technology Park (ARTPARK) of India has been launched at? Ans. IISC Bengaluru
Q85.Which country topped in South Asia in terms of women on board of listed company? Bangladesh
Q80.Which was the 'Best Film' at the BAFTA Awards ?The Power of the Dog
Q86.In India, the National Vaccination 'World observed Day' ? 16th april
Q88.Who has won his first India Super 500 title in India Open 2022? Ans. Lakshay Sen
Q89.Who has become the new captain of the Indian women hockey team Ans. Savita Punia
Q90.Where has the world's first hotel for camel has built? Saudi Arabia
1. In which article GST is included?- Article 279
2. National Balika Diwas- 24th January
3. Who was the author of the poetic work Amukta Malyada? Krishnadevaraya
4. Which State Governor died in January 2021?- Mata Prasad, Arunachal Pradesh
5. Which element in chilli peppers makes them spicy? - Capsaicin
6. Last Nawab of Hyderabad- Mir Osman Ali Khan
7. What is the valency of Halogen- 1, 7
8. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for Xerophalmai?- Vitamin A
9. Which parasite causes Malaria?- Anopheles
10. In which state Autumn thullal dance is famous?- Kerala
1. Dantidurg belongs to which dynasty? Ans: Rashtrakuta
2. Madagascar island is located in which continent Ans:Africa
3. Which of the following event occurred first ? Ans: options- Khera satyagraha,simon commission,Bengal partition
4. Who won global Goalkeeper Award 2019? Ans:Narendra Modi
5. article 17 is related to Ans:Abolition of Untouchability
6. Which rivers does Vishwamitra pray in Rigveda? Ans:Beas and Sutlej.
7. Which Amendment is related to panchayati raj?. Ans: 73rd amendment 1992
1. What is the economic growth rate projected by the IMF? Ans: 9% for 2022-23
2. Who is the chairman of FICCI? Ans: Sanjiv Mehta
3. What is the fullform of NABARD? Ans:National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
4. Which of the following kings defeated harshavardhana? Ans:Pulakeshin II
5.which animal has more than one heart? Ans: octopus
6. Youngest person to get nobel prize. Ans:Malala yousafzai
Sunday, May 1, 2022
SBI SO 2022 EXAM Details- RECRUITMENT OF SPECIALIST CADRE OFFICERS IN STATE BANK OF INDIA 2022 STARTED & APPLY
SBI SO 2022 EXAM Manual- RECRUITMENT OF SPECIALIST CADRE OFFICERS IN STATE BANK OF INDIA 2022 STARTED & APPLY
State Bank of India invites On-line application from Indian citizen for appointment/engagement in the following Specialist Cadre Officer posts on regular/ contract basis.
Candidates are requested to apply On-line through the link given in Bank's
website https://bank.sbi/web/careers
Today SBI released SBI SO 2022 Vacancy over 40 posts.I mention some eligibility criteria, application dates, exam date, total vacancy, registration fees, syllabus, selection process all the SBI SO related thing detailed describe below.
IMPORTANT DATES
1. Online Registration of Application and Online Payment of Fee: From 27.04.2022 To 17.05.2022
2. Online Test (Tentative): 25.06.2022
3. Downloading Call Letter for Online Test (Tentative): 16.06.2022 Onwards
POST FOR SBI SO RECRUITMENT 2022
System Officer (Web Developer)
System Officer (Test Engineer)
System Officer (Performance/Senior
Automation Test Engineer)
System Officer (Project Manager)
System Officer (Project Manager)
Educational Qualifications
Educational qualifications for all the post of SBI so exam 2022-23 should be same as other👇👇👇
Basic Qualification (Compulsory): BE/ BTech in (Computer Science/ Computer Science & Engineering/ Information
Technology/ Software Engineering/ Electronics & Communications Engineering) or MCA or MTech/ MSc in (Computer Science/ Information Technology/ Electronic & Communications Engineering) or equivalent qualification from recognised University/ Institute
Selection Process:
(i) Selection Process for Post Sr No. 1 to 3:
The selection of candidates for Post Sl No. 1 to 3 will be on the basis of Online Written Test and Interview.
Online written Test: The online written test will be conducted tentatively on 25.06.2022. The call letter of test will be uploaded on Bank’s website and also advised to the candidates through SMS and e-mails. Candidates will be required to download the call letters. The test may be held at Guntur, Kurnool, Vijaywada, Vishakhapatnam, Guwahati, Silchar, Muzaffarpur, Patna, Chandigarh/ Mohali, Raipur,
Bilaspur, Delhi/ New Delhi, Faridabad, Ghaziabad, Greater Noida, Gurugram, Panaji, Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Ambala, Hissar, Hamirpur, Shimla, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Ranchi, Bengaluru, Hubli,
Mangalore, Kochi, Thiruvananthapuram, Bhopal, Indore, Aurangabad (Maharashtra), Mumbai/ Thane/Navi Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Imphal, Shilong, Aizawl, Kohima, Bhubaneshwar, Sambalpur,
Puducherry, Jalandhar, Ludhiana, Jaipur, Udaipur, Bardang/ Gangtok, Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Hyderabad, Warangal, Agartala, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Kanpur, Lucknow, Meerut, Varanasi,
Dehradun, Asansol, Greater Kolkata, Siliguri centres.
CANDIDATE SHOULD CHOOSE THE NAME OF THE CENTRE WHERE HE/SHE DESIRES TO APPEAR IN THE EXAMINATION. NO CHANGE IN THE CHOICE OF EXAMINATION CENTRE WILL
BE ENTERTAINED. THE BANK, HOWEVER, RESERVES THE RIGHT TO ADD OR DELETE ANY CENTRE AND ALLOT THE CANDIDATE TO ANY CENTRE OTHER THAN THE ONE HE/SHE HAS
OPTED FOR.
Quantitative Aptitude 35 35*
Test Of Reasoning
Online written test will be held on-line. If number of applications is less, Bank reserves the right to consider selection of the candidate(s) through shortlisting and interview as mentioned
below in Para (G) (ii), instead of Online written test & interview.
Interview: Adequate number of candidates as decided by the Bank will be called for Interview based on performance in online written test. Interview will carry 25 marks. The qualifying marks in Interview
will be as decided by the Bank.
Merit List: The final merit list will be arrived at after aggregating the marks of Professional Knowledge test (out of 150 marks) and interview (out of 25 marks). Weightage of score will be as under:
2
Professional Knowledge
(PK)
35 35*
Pattern of online written Examination: (For Post Sr. No 1 To 3)
25 50 70 Min
Note: In case the face in the photograph or signature or documents is/are unclear, the candidate application may be rejected. In case the photograph or signature or documents is/are not
prominently visible, the candidate may edit his/her application and re-load his/ her photograph or signature or documents, prior to submitting the form.
Upload Documents:
a. Details of Document to be uploaded:
i. Detailed Resume (PDF)
ii. ID Proof (PDF)
iii. Proof of Date of Birth (PDF)
iv. Educational Certificates: Relevant Mark-Sheets/ Degree Certificate (PDF)
v. Experience certificates (PDF)
vi. Caste certificate/OBC Certificate/EWS certificate, if applicable (PDF)
vii. PWD certificate, if applicable (PDF)
viii. Latest Salary Slip/ Form 16 (PDF)
b. Photograph file type/ size (jpg/jpeg):
i. Photograph must be a recent passport style colour picture.
ii. Size of file should be between 20 kb-50 kb and Dimensions 200 x 230 pixels
iii. Make sure that the picture is in colour, taken against a light-coloured, preferably white, background.
iv. Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face
v. If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the shade, so that you are
not squinting and there are no harsh shadows
vi. If you have to use flash, ensure there's no "red-eye"
vii. If you wear glasses make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.
viii. Caps, hats and dark glasses are not acceptable. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover your
face.
ix. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50kb. If the size of the file is more than 50 kb, then
adjust the settings of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning.
c. Signature file type/ size (jpg/jpeg):
i. The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen.
ii. The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.
iii. The signature will be used to put on the Call Letter and wherever necessary.
iv. If the Applicant’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not match the signature
on the Call Letter, the applicant will be disqualified.
v. Size of file should be between 10kb - 20kb and Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels.
vi. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 20kb
vii. Signature in CAPITAL LETTERS shall NOT be accepted.
d. Document file type/ size:
i. All Documents must be in PDF format.
ii. Page size of the document to be A4.
iii. Size of the file should not be exceeding 500 KB.
iv. In case of Document being scanned, please ensure it is saved as PDF and size not more than 500 KB as
PDF. If the size of the file is more than 500KB, then adjust the setting of the scanner such as the DPI
resolution, no. of colors etc., during the process of scanning. Please ensure that Documents uploaded are
clear and readable.
e. Guidelines for scanning of photograph/ signature/ documents:
i. Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 200 dpi (dots per inch)
ii. Set Colour to True Colour
iii. Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/ signature, then use the upload editor to crop
the image to the final size (as specified above).
iv. The photo/ signature file should be JPG or JPEG format (i.e. file name should appear as: image01.jpg or
image01.jpeg).
v. Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder/ files or moving the mouse over the file image icon.
vi. Candidates using MS Windows/ MSOffice can easily obtain photo and signature in .jpeg format not
exceeding 50kb & 20kb respectively by using MS Paint or MSOffice Picture Manager. Scanned photograph
and signature in any format can be saved in .jpg format by using ‘Save As’ option in the File menu. The file
size can be reduced below 50 kb (photograph) & 20 kb (signature) by using crop and then resize option
(Please see point (i) & (ii) above for the pixel size) in the ‘Image’ menu. Similar options are available in other
photo editor also.
vii. While filling in the Online Application Form the candidate will be provided with a link to upload his/her
photograph and signature.
(E) How to Apply:
Candidates should have valid email ID which should be kept active till the declaration of result. It will help him/her in getting call letter/ Interview advices etc. by email.
GUIDELINES FOR PAYMENT OF FEES:
i. Application fees (Non-refundable): Rs 750/- ( Seven Hundred Fifty only) for General/ OBC/EWS candidates and NIL for SC/ST/PWD candidates.
ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.
iii. After ensuring correctness of the particulars in the application form, candidates are required to pay the fees through payment gateway integrated with the application. No change/ edit in the
application will be allowed thereafter.
iv. The payment can be made by using Debit Card/ Credit Card/ Internet Banking etc. by providing information as asked on the screen. Transaction charges for online payment, if any, will be borne by the
candidates.
v. On successful completion of the transaction, e-receipt and application form, bearing the date of submission by the candidate, will be generated which should be printed and retained by the candidate.
vi. If the online payment of fee is not successfully completed in first instance, please make fresh attempts to make online payment.
vii. There is also a provision to reprint the e-Receipt and Application form containing fee details, at later stage.
viii. Application Fee once paid will NOT be refunded on any account NOR can it be adjusted for any other examination or selection in future.
Role based Knowledge** 50 100
Test No. of Questions Marks Time
General Aptitude*
50 50*
(ii) Selection Process for Post Sr No. 4 and 5:
The selection of candidates for Post Sr. No. 4 and 5 will be based on Shortlisting & Interview.
Shortlisting: Mere fulfilling minimum qualification and experience will not vest any right in candidate for being called for interview. The Short listing Committee constituted by the Bank will decide the
short listing parameters and thereafter, adequate number of candidates, as decided by the Bank will be shortlisted and called for interview. The decision of the bank to call the candidates for the interview
shall be final. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
Interview: Interview will carry 100 marks. The qualifying marks in interview will be decided by Bank. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
Merit List: Merit list for selection will be prepared in descending order on the basis of scores obtained in interview only. In case more than one candidate score the cut-off marks (common marks at cut-off
point), such candidates will be ranked according to their age in descending order, in the merit.
* Qualifying in nature and marks thereon will not be reckoned for arriving at the Merit. ** Questions related to the post for which candidate has applied.
(a) Except Professional Knowledge (PK) paper, other papers will be of qualifying in nature. Candidates have to score minimum qualifying marks in these papers. The minimum qualifying marks will be as
decided or may be waived at the discretion of Bank. The questions will be bilingual i.e. in Hindi & English. The candidates will have option to answer the questions in Hindi or English (except for test of
English Language).
(b) To be eligible for being short-listed for interview, candidates have to score equal to or above the cut-off marks to be decided by the Bank for the Professional Knowledge test (PK test), besides scoring
equal to or above the Minimum qualifying marks in other tests.
90 Min
English Language
General IT Knowledge
Posts Weightage Pattern
(i) System Officer (Test Engineer);
(ii) System Officer (Web Developer);
(iii) System Officer (Performance/Senior Automation Test Engineer)
● Written Test: 70%
● Interview: 30%
The selection will be made from the Top merit ranked candidates in each category. In case more than one candidate score the cut-off marks (common marks at cut-off point), such candidate will be ranked according to their age in descending order in the merit list.
all Letter for Online Examination/ Interview:
a. Online Examination: The candidates should download their call letter for online examination and an “Acquaint Yourself” booklet by entering their registration number and password/date of birth, from
the Bank’s website. NO HARD COPY OF THE CALL LETTER/ ACQUAINT YOURSELF BOOKLET WILL BE SENT BY POST.
b. Interview: Intimation/call letter for interview, where required, will be sent by email or will be uploaded on Bank’s website. NO HARD COPY WILL BE SENT.
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