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Monday, May 16, 2022

toady gk question for competitive exam\ आज के GK के प्रश्न जो ssc chsl, railway, bank exam में आ सकते है \ gk for quiz

Today gk question जो आपको मदद करेगा competitive exam ke general awareness ke question. 
All previous years general awareness question जो competitive exaम में आये थे सारे कर, ssc chsl ki preparation ke liye best Or sbi so exam ke, ssc cgl ke, ntpc, railway gk question 




258. IQAir's 2021 World Air Quality Report: New Delhi is world's most polluted capital city 

259. ICICI Bank launched co-branded credit cards with Emirates Skywards 

260. CPI-based Retail inflation rose to 6.07% in February, above RBI's upper limit for 2nd straight month 

261. Wholesale price index-based inflation rose to 13.11% in February 

262. IIT Madras signed MoU with RBI Innovation Hub to boost fintech startups 

263. SBI will set up Innovation, Incubation, and Acceleration Centre at Hyderabad 

264. Torrent Power inked a pact to acquire 51% stake in power distribution utility of Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu 

265. Max Life Insurance launched Giglndia Smart Guaranteed Pension Plan and 

266. Mahila Money, Visa, Transcorp launched Prepaid Card for Women Entrepreneurs unveiled harmonised 


 268. NPCI will launch On-Device Wallet 'UPI Lite' for small value transactions in offline mode RBI

270. Moody's projected India's GDP forecast at 9.1% for CY22 

271. BPCL first to offer digital payment to non-internet users for voice-based LPG Booking

 272. Kotak Mahindra Bank became 1st Indian bank to sign MoU with Business France

 273. Govt extended timeline to 10 years for startups to convert debt investments into equity 

274. HDFC Bank will launch "SmartHub Vyapar programme" & 'AutoFirst' app 

275. RBI cancelled license of People's Co-operative Bank Ltd Kanpur, UP 

276. PhonePe acquired a 100% stake in freelance entrepreneur network Giglndia

 277. Fitch Ratings projected India's FY23 growth forecast at 8.5% 

278. SBI, HDFC, Kotak Mahindra, and Axis Bank picked up 7.84% stake each in ONDC for Rs 10 crore Basket Gourmet Card

 279. SBI Card partnered with Nature's launch the International Gourmet 


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Saturday, May 14, 2022

daily current affairs may month 2022-23 | ssc cgl, chsl, railway current affairs, mppsc gk 2022

Latest current affairs  may month 2022 for all competitive exam, state psc, ssc, ibps, banking


Daily gk for quiz, it will improve your general awareness, this gk question come in previous years competitive exam 






. 216. Biography of late soil Sorabjee titled "Soli Sorabjee: Life and Times" Chandrachud authored by Abhinav

217. Hindi novel Tomb of Sand' nominated for International Booker Prize

218.Sahitya Akademi published book-length poem 'Monsoon' Indian poet-diplomat Abhay K 

219. 9 March: No Smoking Day

220. 10 March (Second Thursday March): World Kidney Day 2022 (Theme 2022: 'Kidney Health All')

221. 10 March: International Day Women Judges

222.13 March: World Rotaract (Theme 2022: "Rotary Making a Difference".)

223. 14 March: Pi Day or International Day of Mathematics (Theme 2022: Mathematics Unites!)

224. 14 March: International Day Action for Rivers (Theme 2022: "the biodiversity.")

225. 12 March: World Glaucoma (Theme 2022: "The world is bright, save your sight".) importance of rivers l

226. 15 March: World Consumer Rights Day (Theme 2022: "Fair Digital Finance.")

227. March: National Vaccination Day or National Immunisation Day (Theme 2022: "Vaccines Work for all".)

228. Former Pakistani President Rafiq Tarar passed away

229. Nirmala Sitharaman presented a Rs 1.42 Lakh crore Budget for FY 2022- 23 for J&K in Lok Sabha

230. Welspun One Logistics Parks  signed MoU with Haryana Govt to invest 1500 crores to set up warehouses

231. MV Ram Prasad Bismil became longest vessel to sail from Ganga to Brahmaputra via Bangladesh

232. 36th International Geological Congress will be held in New Delhi

233. Karnataka developed Dishaank app to ensure easy access to land records

234. Indian Railways prepared National Rail Plan (NRP) for India-2030 

235. West Bengal celebrated 'Dol utsav' or Dol jatra


236. Visakhapatnam Railway Station became the 1st station in East Coast implement 'One Nation, One Product 


237. Telangana became 1st state in India Diversification Index Crop to implement 


238. Cochin Shipyard signed an agreement with Dredging Corporation of India to build India's first make in India dredger 


239. NCRTC unveiled the coaches of India's first rapid rail to be used in the Delhi-Meerut corridor 


 240. 35th Surajkund International  Crafts Mela inaugurated in Haryana


 241. N Biren Singh took oath as Manipur CM for the second term. 


242. Nagaland became first paperless assembly by implementing eVidhan application 


253. India handmade Nadu's Narasingapettai Nagaswaram geographical identification tag 


 244. Pramod Sawant took charge as Goa Chief Minister for the 2nd term 


245. Kerala became 1st state to introduce carbon-neutral farming Methods 


246. Pushkar Singh Dhami took oath as Chief Minister of Uttarakhand for term



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Tuesday, May 10, 2022

11th may 2022 gk/general awareness question help you for ssc chsl 2022,ibps exam, ssc cgl, shi so exam 2022.ssc free mock test for ssc, state psc

 11th may 2022 general knowledge /general awareness questions for ssc chsl, cgl, ibps, sbi so & ALL PSC's competitive exam. All 2022 gk quiz. Gk question for state pcs, ssc, banking, & icar IARI, sbi exam




1. Who of the following has been awarded the Laureas World Sportsman of the Year 2022?
a. Lewis Hamilton b. Sebastian Vettel c. Sergio Perez 11th may 2022 general knowledge /general awareness questions for ssc chsl, cgl, ibps, sbi so & other competitive exam. All april 2022 gk quiz

1. Who of the following has been awarded the Laureas World Sportsman of the Year 2022?
a. Lewis Hamilton b. Sebastian Vettel c. Sergio Perez d. Max Verstappen

2. What name was given to a tulip breed at the Keukenhof Tulip Park during the President Shri Rajnath Singh's visit to Netherlands? a. Maitri b. Suman c. Parag d. Dosti

3. Dane Van Niekerk, the only woman cricketer in the Wisden Cricketers of the Year 2022 belongs to which country? a. Australia b. New Zealand c. South Africa d. England

4. Kane Tanaka, who died at the age of 119 years and 107 days belonged to which country? a. Japan b. South Korea c. China d. Thailand

5. Which country recently tested its laser missile defence system named tron Beam? b. North Korea c. Israel d. Brazil a. Iran

6, What is the theme of World Immunization Week observed from 24 to 30 April 2022? c. Health for all d. Immunity for all a. Vaccine for all b. Long life for all

7. Who was awarded the Player of the Series in the 2022 ICC Women's World Cup? a. Sophie Ecclestone b. Jhulan Goswami c. Rachael Haynes d. Alyssa Healy

8. Deoghar, where a ropeway accident claimed 2 lives, is situated in which state? a. Jharkhand c. Uttar Pradesh d. Uttarakhand b. Bihar

9. At which of the following places were the Khelo India University Games held recently? a. Hyderabad b. Chandigarh c. Bengaluru d. Pune

 
10. Who is the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog? a. Amitabh Kant b. Suman Bery c. Ramesh Chand d. VK Saraswat

11. At which of the following places was India's first pure Green Hydrogen pilot plant commissioned recently? a. Guwahati b. Tejpur c. Shillong d. Jorhat

12. What is correct order of top 3 countries in military spending as per Stockholm International Institute (SIPRI) report titled Trends in World Military Expenditure Report 2021 ? a. USA, Saudi Arabia, India b. USA, China, India c. China, Saudi Arabia, India c. Saudi Arabia, India, Israel

13. Falguni Nayyar was ranked at No. 10 position in the Hurun Richest Self-Made Women in the World 2022. With which company is she associated? a. PayTM b. Zoho C. Nyka d. Biocon

14. Which album by Falguni Shah was awarded the Best Children's Album at the 64 Grammy Awards in April 2022? a, A Colorful World b. Crayon Kids C. Activate d. All One Tribe

15. How many times has Australia won the ICC Womens Cricket World Cup? a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Seven

16. What was the theme of World Health Day observed on 07 April 2022? a. Our Planet, Our Health b. Heritage and Climate c. Invest in our Planet d. Long Life for All

17. In which country were the Asian Wrestling Championships 2022 held in April 20227 a. Kazakhstan b. Mongolia c. Uzbekistan d. Iran

18. What was the theme of International Mother Earth Day observed on 22 April 2022? a. Our Planet, Our Health b. Heritage and Climate c. Invest in our Planet d. Long Life for All

19. At which place was a 3-day Global Ayush Investment and Innovation Summit 2022 held in April 2022? a. Varanasi b. Gandhinagar c. Jammu d. Dehradun

20. At what price has Elon Musk bought the social media platform Twitter? a. $ 40 billion b. $44 billion c. $48 billion d. $ 54 billion

21. With which of the following sports is Sajan Prakash associated? a. Track & Field b. Badminton c. Swimming d. Chess

22. Which airlines launched the first commercial flight using made-in-India Dornier-228 between Pasighat and Dibrugarh?

a, Indigo b. Air Asia C. Alliance Air d. Air India

23. Which two Indian cities have been included in the Tree City of the World list by UN Food and Agricultural Organisation and Arbor Day Foundation? a. Bengaluru and Pune b. Bengaluru and Hyderabad c. Pune and Mumbai d. Hyderabad and Mumbai

24. With which sport is D Gukesh associated? a. Chess b. Athletics c. Boxing d. Wrestling

25. In which of the following water bodies did the Russian warship Moskova sink during the Russia-Ukraine war? d. Caspian Sea d. Baltic Sea a. Black Sea b. Arctic Ocean

26. Which state created 13 new districts taking the total to 26 with effect from 01 April 2022? a. Telangana b. Tamil Nadu C. Andhra Pradesh d. Odisha

27. The album Divine Tides by Ricky Kej won the Grammy Award in which category? a. Global Music b. New Age C. Classical d. Alternative

28. Which state of Australia has been designated to host the 2026 Commonwealth Games? a. Victoria c. Queensland d. New South Wales b. Tasmania

29. Which of the following has launched Fincluvation - a joint initiative to collaborate with Fintech Startup community to co-create and innovate solutions for financial inclusion? a, Life insurance Corporation b. State Bank of India c. India Post Payments Bank d. NITI Aayog

30. Which team has won the 12h Senior Men's National Hockey Championship? a, Punjab b. Haryana c. Tamil Nadu d. Railways


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Monday, May 9, 2022

ICAI IARI 2022 Exam for Assistant post are 462+ , Application begins

 The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has published the IARI Recruitment 2022 Notification for recruitment to the posts of Assistant. Total notified vacancies by the ICAI IARI for Assistant post are 462. Online applications for these posts will start from 07.05.2022 and eligible & interested candidates can apply online till 01.06.2022. 


As you know recently ICAR give notifications about ICAR IARI EXAM 2022 notifications here I provide all small details about the recruitment process, eligibility, important dates, & other good things 





Detailed official notification, online application link, eligibility criteria, educational qualification, salary / pay scale, vacancy and other relevant details for ICAR IARI Assistant recruitment 2022 are provided below.


Important Dates (tentative)*

Submission of online applications starts on 07 May, 2022

Last date and time for receipt of online applications 01 June, 2022

Last date and time for making online fee payment 01 June, 2022

Correction Window 05 June, 2022 to 07 June, 2022

Date of online objective type examination (CBT) (Preliminary) Last week of June, 2022 (Tentative)

Date pf holding Mains examination To be informed at a later date.

Skill Test To be informed at a later date.



ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATIONS: -

Bachelor’s degree from a recognized University. Candidate must specifically indicate the percentage of marks

obtained (calculated to the nearest two decimals) in the relevant column of the application form. Where percentage of marks is not awarded by the University but only CGPA/OGPA is awarded, the same shall be converted into percentage in terms of conversion norms of university in this regard, besides indicating the CGPA/OGPA in the application form. Candidates will have to produce the certificate/document issued by the university evidencing conversion formula of university, when called for document verification. Round off %age will not be acceptable under any circumstances for consideration for appointment. The fraction of percentage so arrived will be ignored i.e. 39.99% will be treated as less than 40%.


Application Fee Details: -

The candidates seeking admission to the examination must pay to the IARI a fee as follows:

S.No. Category of Candidate Examination

fee (Rs.)

Registration fee

(Rs.)

Total (Rs.)

1. UR/OBC-NCL(NCL)/EWS 700 500 1200

2. Women/Schedule- Caste/Schedule

Tribe/Person with Benchmark

Disability

 NIL 500 500

ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED

CASTE/SCHEDULE TRIBE/PERSON WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITY ARE EXEMPTED FROM

PAYMENT OF EXAMINATION FEE. THEY HAVE TO PAY REGISTRATION FEE ONLY.

NOTE-I: Online application form available on the website i.e., https://www.iari.res.in only. Fee must be paid in

online mode only.

NOTE-II: Online applications not accompanied by the prescribed registration fee (whenever applicable) shall be

summarily rejected/ not accepted.

NOTE-III: Transaction charges (if any) for online payment of application fee will have to be borne by the

candidate.

NOTE-IV: Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can be adjusted for any other

examination or selection.


(I) Scheme of Examination:-

(A) ICAR Assistant Grade (Preliminary) Examination: -

PART Subject No. of

Questions

Max. Marks Duration

A General Intelligence and

Reasoning

25 50 1.00 Hours

(1 hours and 20 minutes

for the candidates eligible

for scribe.)

B General Awareness 25 50

C Quantative Aptitude 25 50

D English Comprehension 25 50



(B) ICAR Assistant Grade (Main) Examination:-

Paper

No.

Subject No. of Questions Max.

Marks

Duration

I Quantitative Abilities 50

(Objective Type)

100 2 Hours

(2 hours and 40 minutes for

the candidates eligible for

scribe.)

English Language &

Comprehension

100

(Objective Type)

100

II Descriptive Paper in English or Hindi

(Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/ Application etc.)

100 1 Hours

(1 hours and 20 minutes for

the candidates eligible for

scribe.)

i. Preliminary and Mains Examinations (Paper – I) will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions. The

questions will be set both in English & Hindi except for English Comprehension in Preliminary and Main

Examinations (Paper – I).

ii. The Preliminary Exam and Paper – I of the Main Examination will be conducted in online mode and Paper – II of

the Main examination will be conducted in offline mode.



Indicative Syllabus for Assistant Grade (Preliminary) Examination:

(A) General Intelligence & Reasoning: It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component

may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, spatial orientation, problem

solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts,

arithmetical reasoning and figural classification, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding,

statement conclusion, syllogistic reasoning etc. The topics are, Semantic Analogy, Symbolic/ Number Analogy,

Figural Analogy, Semantic Classification, Symbolic/ Number Classification, Figural Classification, Semantic

Series, Number Series, Figural Series, Problem Solving, Word Building, Coding & de-coding, Numerical

Operations, symbolic Operations, Trends, Space Orientation, Space Visualization, Venn Diagrams, Drawing

inferences, Punched hole/ pattern- folding & un-folding, Figural Pattern-folding and completion, Indexing, Address

matching, Date & city matching, Classification of centre codes/ roll numbers, Small & Capital letters/ numbers

coding, decoding and classification, Embedded Figures, Critical thinking, Emotional Intelligence, Social

Intelligence.


(B) General Awareness: Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidates’ general awareness of the

environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current

events and of such matters of every day observations and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected

of any educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries

especially pertaining History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Policy & Scientific Research.

(C) Quantitative Aptitude: The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number

sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and

relationships between numbers, Percentage. Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss,

Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic

identities of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of

centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of acircle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism,

Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right

Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities,

Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

(D) English Comprehension: Candidates’ ability to understand correct English, his/ her basic comprehension and

writing ability, etc. would be tested.

The questions in Parts A, B, & D will be of a level commensurate with the essential qualification viz. Graduation and

questions in Part-C will be of 10thstandard level.



Indicative Syllabus for Assistant Grade (Mains) Examination:

Paper-I

(i) Quantitative Abilities: The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number

sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and

relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss,

Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities

of School Algebra & Elementary surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various kinds of centres,

Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle,

common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right

Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid

with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities,

Complementary angles, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

(ii) English Language and Comprehension: Questions in this component will be designed to test the candidate’s

understanding and knowledge of English Language and will be based on spot the error, fill in 21 the blanks,

synonyms, antonyms, spelling/ detecting misspelled words, idioms & phrases, one word substitution, improvement

of sentences, active/ passive voice of verbs, conversion into direct/ indirect narration, shuffling of sentence parts,

shuffling of sentences in a passage, cloze passage & comprehension passage.



Paper-II

Questions in the Paper-II (Writing of Essay/ Precis/ Letter/ Application etc.) will be of Graduation Level.


Notifications Download - click here


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Saturday, May 7, 2022

SSC CGL, CHSL 2022 GENERAL AWARENESS QUESTION - FREE MOCK SSC CHSL

 SSC chsl 2022 free mock test for general awareness 


This month ssc will conduct SSC CHSL 2022 exam & we are providing some important general awareness quiz based on latest GK  . This is basically a free mock test who wants to prepare for ssc, ibps, sbi so, cds, state psc exam 2022-23.It will definitely help you when you read this. 







In which year street child world cup will organised? 2023

World art day? 15th april

Himachal pradesh day observed? 15 th april

Full Form of GIL? Godrej Industries limited

Which govt. Extended Parivaar pehchan patra (ppp)? Haryana. 

Author name 'The Boy Who Wrote a Constitution? Rajesh talwaar

Who presented the dr. bhim rao ambedkar award in 14 april 2022 ? Basavaraj bommai

Q First Intelligence Technology Park (ARTPARK) of India has been launched at? Ans. IISC Bengaluru

 Q85.Which country topped in South Asia in terms of women on board of listed company? Bangladesh

 Q80.Which was the 'Best Film' at the BAFTA Awards ?The Power of the Dog 

Q86.In India, the National Vaccination 'World observed Day' ? 16th april 

Q88.Who has won his first India Super 500 title in India Open 2022? Ans. Lakshay Sen 

 Q89.Who has become the new captain of the Indian women hockey team Ans. Savita Punia 

Q90.Where has the world's first hotel for camel has built? Saudi Arabia

1. In which article GST is included?- Article 279

2. National Balika Diwas- 24th January

3. Who was the author of the poetic work Amukta Malyada? Krishnadevaraya

4. Which State Governor died in January 2021?- Mata Prasad, Arunachal Pradesh

5. Which element in chilli peppers makes them spicy? - Capsaicin

6. Last Nawab of Hyderabad- Mir Osman Ali Khan

7. What is the valency of Halogen- 1, 7

8. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for Xerophalmai?- Vitamin A

9. Which parasite causes Malaria?- Anopheles

10. In which state Autumn thullal dance is famous?- Kerala 

1. Dantidurg belongs to which dynasty? Ans: Rashtrakuta

 2. Madagascar island is located in which continent Ans:Africa 

3. Which of the following event occurred first ? Ans: options- Khera satyagraha,simon commission,Bengal partition 

4. Who won global Goalkeeper Award 2019? Ans:Narendra Modi 

5. article 17 is related to Ans:Abolition of Untouchability

 6. Which rivers does Vishwamitra pray in Rigveda? Ans:Beas and Sutlej. 

7. Which Amendment is related to panchayati raj?. Ans: 73rd amendment 1992 

 1. What is the economic growth rate projected by the IMF? Ans: 9% for 2022-23

2. Who is the chairman of FICCI? Ans: Sanjiv Mehta 

3. What is the fullform of NABARD? Ans:National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development 

4. Which of the following kings defeated harshavardhana? Ans:Pulakeshin II 

5.which animal has more than one heart? Ans: octopus 

6. Youngest person to get nobel prize. Ans:Malala yousafzai

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Sunday, May 1, 2022

SBI SO 2022 EXAM Details- RECRUITMENT OF SPECIALIST CADRE OFFICERS IN STATE BANK OF INDIA 2022 STARTED & APPLY

 SBI SO 2022 EXAM Manual- RECRUITMENT OF SPECIALIST CADRE OFFICERS IN STATE BANK OF INDIA 2022 STARTED & APPLY









State Bank of India invites On-line application from Indian citizen for appointment/engagement in the following Specialist Cadre Officer posts on regular/ contract basis.

Candidates are requested to apply On-line through the link given in Bank's 



website https://bank.sbi/web/careers


Today SBI released SBI SO 2022 Vacancy over 40 posts.I mention some eligibility criteria, application dates, exam date, total vacancy, registration fees, syllabus, selection process all the SBI SO related thing detailed describe below. 


IMPORTANT DATES


1. Online Registration of Application and Online Payment of Fee: From 27.04.2022 To 17.05.2022

2. Online Test (Tentative): 25.06.2022 

3. Downloading Call Letter for Online Test (Tentative): 16.06.2022 Onwards




POST FOR SBI SO RECRUITMENT 2022


System Officer (Web Developer)

System Officer (Test Engineer)

System Officer (Performance/Senior 

Automation Test Engineer)

System Officer (Project Manager)

System Officer (Project Manager)

Shi so exam 2022 post



Educational Qualifications 

Educational qualifications for all the post of SBI so exam 2022-23 should be same as other👇👇👇


Basic Qualification (Compulsory): BE/ BTech in (Computer Science/ Computer Science & Engineering/ Information
Technology/ Software Engineering/ Electronics & Communications Engineering) or MCA or MTech/ MSc in (Computer Science/ Information Technology/ Electronic & Communications Engineering) or equivalent qualification from recognised University/ Institute






Selection Process:

(i) Selection Process for Post Sr No. 1 to 3:

The selection of candidates for Post Sl No. 1 to 3 will be on the basis of Online Written Test and Interview. 

Online written Test: The online written test will be conducted tentatively on 25.06.2022. The call letter of test will be uploaded on Bank’s website and also advised to the candidates through SMS and e-mails. Candidates will be required to download the call letters. The test may be held at Guntur, Kurnool, Vijaywada, Vishakhapatnam, Guwahati, Silchar, Muzaffarpur, Patna, Chandigarh/ Mohali, Raipur,

Bilaspur, Delhi/ New Delhi, Faridabad, Ghaziabad, Greater Noida, Gurugram, Panaji, Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Ambala, Hissar, Hamirpur, Shimla, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Ranchi, Bengaluru, Hubli,

Mangalore, Kochi, Thiruvananthapuram, Bhopal, Indore, Aurangabad (Maharashtra), Mumbai/ Thane/Navi Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Imphal, Shilong, Aizawl, Kohima, Bhubaneshwar, Sambalpur,

Puducherry, Jalandhar, Ludhiana, Jaipur, Udaipur, Bardang/ Gangtok, Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Hyderabad, Warangal, Agartala, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Kanpur, Lucknow, Meerut, Varanasi,

Dehradun, Asansol, Greater Kolkata, Siliguri centres.

CANDIDATE SHOULD CHOOSE THE NAME OF THE CENTRE WHERE HE/SHE DESIRES TO APPEAR IN THE EXAMINATION. NO CHANGE IN THE CHOICE OF EXAMINATION CENTRE WILL

BE ENTERTAINED. THE BANK, HOWEVER, RESERVES THE RIGHT TO ADD OR DELETE ANY CENTRE AND ALLOT THE CANDIDATE TO ANY CENTRE OTHER THAN THE ONE HE/SHE HAS

OPTED FOR.

Quantitative Aptitude 35 35*





Test Of Reasoning

Online written test will be held on-line. If number of applications is less, Bank reserves the right to consider selection of the candidate(s) through shortlisting and interview as mentioned

below in Para (G) (ii), instead of Online written test & interview. 

Interview: Adequate number of candidates as decided by the Bank will be called for Interview based on performance in online written test. Interview will carry 25 marks. The qualifying marks in Interview

will be as decided by the Bank. 

Merit List: The final merit list will be arrived at after aggregating the marks of Professional Knowledge test (out of 150 marks) and interview (out of 25 marks). Weightage of score will be as under: 

2

Professional Knowledge 

(PK)

35 35*

Pattern of online written Examination: (For Post Sr. No 1 To 3)

25 50 70 Min

Note: In case the face in the photograph or signature or documents is/are unclear, the candidate application may be rejected. In case the photograph or signature or documents is/are not 

prominently visible, the candidate may edit his/her application and re-load his/ her photograph or signature or documents, prior to submitting the form.




 Upload Documents:

a. Details of Document to be uploaded:

i. Detailed Resume (PDF)

ii. ID Proof (PDF)

iii. Proof of Date of Birth (PDF)

iv. Educational Certificates: Relevant Mark-Sheets/ Degree Certificate (PDF)

v. Experience certificates (PDF) 

vi. Caste certificate/OBC Certificate/EWS certificate, if applicable (PDF)

vii. PWD certificate, if applicable (PDF)

viii. Latest Salary Slip/ Form 16 (PDF)

b. Photograph file type/ size (jpg/jpeg):

i. Photograph must be a recent passport style colour picture. 

ii. Size of file should be between 20 kb-50 kb and Dimensions 200 x 230 pixels

iii. Make sure that the picture is in colour, taken against a light-coloured, preferably white, background.

iv. Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face

v. If the picture is taken on a sunny day, have the sun behind you, or place yourself in the shade, so that you are 

not squinting and there are no harsh shadows

vi. If you have to use flash, ensure there's no "red-eye"

vii. If you wear glasses make sure that there are no reflections and your eyes can be clearly seen.

viii. Caps, hats and dark glasses are not acceptable. Religious headwear is allowed but it must not cover your 

face.

ix. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 50kb. If the size of the file is more than 50 kb, then 

adjust the settings of the scanner such as the DPI resolution, no. of colours etc., during the process of scanning. 

c. Signature file type/ size (jpg/jpeg):

i. The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen.

ii. The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.

iii. The signature will be used to put on the Call Letter and wherever necessary.

iv. If the Applicant’s signature on the answer script, at the time of the examination, does not match the signature 

on the Call Letter, the applicant will be disqualified.

v. Size of file should be between 10kb - 20kb and Dimensions 140 x 60 pixels.

vi. Ensure that the size of the scanned image is not more than 20kb

vii. Signature in CAPITAL LETTERS shall NOT be accepted.

d. Document file type/ size:

i. All Documents must be in PDF format.

ii. Page size of the document to be A4.

iii. Size of the file should not be exceeding 500 KB.

iv. In case of Document being scanned, please ensure it is saved as PDF and size not more than 500 KB as

PDF. If the size of the file is more than 500KB, then adjust the setting of the scanner such as the DPI

resolution, no. of colors etc., during the process of scanning. Please ensure that Documents uploaded are

clear and readable.

e. Guidelines for scanning of photograph/ signature/ documents:

i. Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 200 dpi (dots per inch)

ii. Set Colour to True Colour

iii. Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/ signature, then use the upload editor to crop

the image to the final size (as specified above).

iv. The photo/ signature file should be JPG or JPEG format (i.e. file name should appear as: image01.jpg or

image01.jpeg).

v. Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder/ files or moving the mouse over the file image icon.

vi. Candidates using MS Windows/ MSOffice can easily obtain photo and signature in .jpeg format not

exceeding 50kb & 20kb respectively by using MS Paint or MSOffice Picture Manager. Scanned photograph

and signature in any format can be saved in .jpg format by using ‘Save As’ option in the File menu. The file

size can be reduced below 50 kb (photograph) & 20 kb (signature) by using crop and then resize option

(Please see point (i) & (ii) above for the pixel size) in the ‘Image’ menu. Similar options are available in other

photo editor also.

vii. While filling in the Online Application Form the candidate will be provided with a link to upload his/her

photograph and signature.



(E) How to Apply: 

Candidates should have valid email ID which should be kept active till the declaration of result. It will help him/her in getting call letter/ Interview advices etc. by email.

GUIDELINES FOR PAYMENT OF FEES:

i. Application fees (Non-refundable): Rs 750/- ( Seven Hundred Fifty only) for General/ OBC/EWS candidates and NIL for SC/ST/PWD candidates.

ii. Fee payment will have to be made online through payment gateway available thereat.

iii. After ensuring correctness of the particulars in the application form, candidates are required to pay the fees through payment gateway integrated with the application. No change/ edit in the

application will be allowed thereafter.

iv. The payment can be made by using Debit Card/ Credit Card/ Internet Banking etc. by providing information as asked on the screen. Transaction charges for online payment, if any, will be borne by the

candidates.

v. On successful completion of the transaction, e-receipt and application form, bearing the date of submission by the candidate, will be generated which should be printed and retained by the candidate.

vi. If the online payment of fee is not successfully completed in first instance, please make fresh attempts to make online payment.

vii. There is also a provision to reprint the e-Receipt and Application form containing fee details, at later stage.

viii. Application Fee once paid will NOT be refunded on any account NOR can it be adjusted for any other examination or selection in future.

Role based Knowledge** 50 100

Test No. of Questions Marks Time

General Aptitude*

50 50*


(ii) Selection Process for Post Sr No. 4 and 5:

The selection of candidates for Post Sr. No. 4 and 5 will be based on Shortlisting & Interview. 

Shortlisting: Mere fulfilling minimum qualification and experience will not vest any right in candidate for being called for interview. The Short listing Committee constituted by the Bank will decide the 

short listing parameters and thereafter, adequate number of candidates, as decided by the Bank will be shortlisted and called for interview. The decision of the bank to call the candidates for the interview 

shall be final. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.

Interview: Interview will carry 100 marks. The qualifying marks in interview will be decided by Bank. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard. 

Merit List: Merit list for selection will be prepared in descending order on the basis of scores obtained in interview only. In case more than one candidate score the cut-off marks (common marks at cut-off 

point), such candidates will be ranked according to their age in descending order, in the merit.



* Qualifying in nature and marks thereon will not be reckoned for arriving at the Merit. ** Questions related to the post for which candidate has applied.

(a) Except Professional Knowledge (PK) paper, other papers will be of qualifying in nature. Candidates have to score minimum qualifying marks in these papers. The minimum qualifying marks will be as

decided or may be waived at the discretion of Bank. The questions will be bilingual i.e. in Hindi & English. The candidates will have option to answer the questions in Hindi or English (except for test of

English Language).

(b) To be eligible for being short-listed for interview, candidates have to score equal to or above the cut-off marks to be decided by the Bank for the Professional Knowledge test (PK test), besides scoring

equal to or above the Minimum qualifying marks in other tests.

90 Min

English Language

General IT Knowledge

Posts Weightage Pattern

(i) System Officer (Test Engineer); 

(ii) System Officer (Web Developer); 

(iii) System Officer (Performance/Senior Automation Test Engineer)

● Written Test: 70%

● Interview: 30%

The selection will be made from the Top merit ranked candidates in each category. In case more than one candidate score the cut-off marks (common marks at cut-off point), such candidate will be ranked according to their age in descending order in the merit list. 


all Letter for Online Examination/ Interview:

a. Online Examination: The candidates should download their call letter for online examination and an “Acquaint Yourself” booklet by entering their registration number and password/date of birth, from

the Bank’s website. NO HARD COPY OF THE CALL LETTER/ ACQUAINT YOURSELF BOOKLET WILL BE SENT BY POST.

b. Interview: Intimation/call letter for interview, where required, will be sent by email or will be uploaded on Bank’s website. NO HARD COPY WILL BE SENT.


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